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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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What is the validity of citing the statement (And the mosques are for Allah, so do not invoke anyone along with Allah) as evidence for the prohibition of bending?

Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The questioner:
He says: Honorable Shaykh, may Allah grant you success, some people cite this verse
And [He revealed] that the masjids are for Allah, so do not invoke with Allah anyone.وَأَنَّ الْمَسَاجِدَ لِلَّهِ فَلَا تَدْعُوا مَعَ اللَّهِ أَحَدًا
[Al-Jinn 72:18]
as evidence for the prohibition of bending. Is this correct?

The Shaykh:
What kind of bending?

The questioner:
Bending like ruku', yes? He says like ruku'.

The Shaykh:
Based on the interpretation of "mosques" as the limbs, the limbs of prostration. Because there is an interpretation that the intended meaning of "mosques" is not the mosques that are the places of prayer, but rather the limbs. The limbs upon which a person prostrates; I was commanded to prostrate on seven bones. From this, a person does not bend for a created being. This is ruku', and ruku' for a created being is not permissible. Yes.
Source قناة «العلامة الدكتور صالح الفوزان»، [820 -858] ما صحة الاستدلال بقوله (وأن المساجد لله فلا تدعوا مع الله أحدا) على النهي عن الانحناء؟ — youtube.com

The Arabic text is a machine transcription of the audio recording.

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