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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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The ruling on a man marrying the daughter of his ex-wife from another husband

Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The questioner:
A questioner says: A man divorced his wife and she did not bear him any children. Then she married another man and bore him daughters. Is it permissible for the first man to marry her daughter?

The Shaykh:
With Jabalah al-'Uwaysh?

The questioner:
So she bore him daughters.

The Shaykh:
Daughters, is this permissible? No, it is not permissible here?

The questioner:
Daughters.

The Shaykh:
"Banat" is in the accusative case with a kasrah instead of a fathah because it is a feminine plural noun, yes. May you be understanding of the language, be students of knowledge, yes.

The questioner:
So is it permissible for him to wash? And she bore him daughters, so is it permissible for the first man to marry her daughter?

The Shaykh:
No, because she is his stepdaughter. If he marries the mother, then all her daughters become his stepdaughters once he has consummated the marriage after the contract. This applies to her daughters from another man, whether they were born from a man before him or from a man after him; they are all his stepdaughters.
your step-daughters under your guardianship [born] of your wives unto whom you have gone inوَرَبَائِبُكُمُ اللَّاتِي فِي حُجُورِكُم مِّن نِّسَائِكُمُ اللَّاتِي دَخَلْتُم بِهِنَّ
[An-Nisa 4:23]
As long as he has consummated the marriage with their mother, all her daughters are forbidden to him, whether from the men before him or the men after him. Yes.

The presenter:
May Allah answer you,
Source قناة «العلامة الدكتور صالح الفوزان»، 141/120 شرح زاد المستقنع/ صالح الفوزان — youtube.com (33:11)

The Arabic text is a machine transcription of the audio recording.

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