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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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What is the ruling on agreeing with a company to sell to them only, excluding other merchants?

Machine translationRead the Arabic original
Question:
The questioner says: We have a general trading company that deals with a company selling tires and batteries. An agreement was reached at our request that we be their sole agents in a specific region, although there are many merchants there who used to deal directly with the same company. We asked the company not to sell certain goods for which we obtained agency from them, so that we can sell these goods through us only in our country. The question is: What is the ruling of the Shari'ah on this action? Is this the forbidden monopoly (ihtikar)? And is there a difference if the company asked us or if we asked them? May Allah reward you with good.

Answer:
As for the company, if it asks you to take charge of selling its products, there is no harm in that. But if you are the ones asking the company to centralize sales with you and prevent others, this is not permissible. This is like the saying of the Messenger (peace and blessings be upon him): "Do not intercept the goods of travelers"
The townsman'should not sell for a man from the desertلا يبع حاضر لباد
Sahih Muslim 1520
because this harms the market and harms other people.
The result is that if the company comes to you and says, "Sell our products, and we do not want anyone else to sell them," there is no harm. But if you are the ones requesting this, it restricts the Muslims.
And it harms the Muslims, and this is not permissible for you. As for whether it is monopoly, no, this is not monopoly. Monopoly is in foodstuffs, in food and drink, and in things that people need. Yes.
Source قناة «العلامة الدكتور صالح الفوزان»، ما حكم الاتفاق مع شركة على البيع لهم فقط دون باقي التجار؟ للشيخ الفوزان — youtube.com

The Arabic text is a machine transcription of the audio recording.

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