If a person owes the expiation of feeding sixty poor people and he only has enough to feed some of them, does he feed them and is the obligation dropped?

The questioner : Can it be said that if a man does not find a poor person to feed, but he has the means to feed a poor person, he feeds one poor person and the expiation is fulfilled? How so? If a man owes the feeding of a poor person, and he has the food for a poor person and takes it, does he give it to this poor person and be done with it?

The Shaykh : I mean, he did not find but one poor person.

The questioner : No, he only has the means to feed, yes.

The Shaykh : You can expiate for him; this is what he was given. He must find sixty poor people, meaning the feeding of sixty poor people. I mean, if he found fifty, if he had enough food for fifty, the obligation is dropped from him, and it shifts to fasting.

The questioner : A look?

The Shaykh : If he is doing it, if he is making it. Yes.

The questioner : The Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) ordered that he sit until the truth came to the pulpit, and he was believed.

The Shaykh : It is possible that the Messenger (peace and blessings be upon him) knew that this Ansari would bring dates; it is possible that he did not know.

The questioner : It is easier than him not feeding anyone, meaning the expiation is dropped from him. Is that lighter than this?

The Shaykh : And there is no doubt that it is better. It may be said that he feeds the one who is present now, and perhaps he will be provided with sustenance and feed the rest, if we say that it is not dropped.