If a married man is asked, "Do you have a wife?" and he says, "No," is the divorce effective?

The questioner : What is the difference between if a man is asked, "Did you divorce your wife?" and he says, "Yes," and if he is asked, "Do you have a wife?" and he says, "No"? In which wording is the divorce effective?

The Shaykh : Is it effective in both cases, or not?

The questioner : Yes, it is effective.

The Shaykh : He said, "Yes, it is effective?"

The questioner : Yes, it is clear.

The Shaykh : It is effective. Yes, it is clear, because "yes" means "I divorced her." But if he is asked, "Do you have a wife?" and he says, "No," intending to lie, note that this is not restricted to that. If he is asked, "Are you married to so-and-so?" and he says, "No, I have no wife," intending to lie to this questioner, not intending to divorce or to deny the marriage, then the divorce is not effective because it is an indirect expression. This is the difference between the two: "Did you divorce your wife?" is explicit, whereas "Do you have a wife?" is an indirect expression, and he did not intend divorce.