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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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Is a divorce valid if a man divorces his wife during a period of purity in which he had intercourse with her?

Machine translationRead the Arabic original
Question : If a man divorces his wife during a period of purity in which he had intercourse with her, and it is established that she is not pregnant before she begins a menstrual cycle, based on the tests announced by the previous committee, do we proceed with this decision, or do we say that she must begin a menstrual cycle?

Answer : No, this is based on the well-known scholarly disagreement. The majority hold that it is valid, and the second opinion says that the divorce does not take place. Yes.
Source قناة «فضيلة الشيخ محمد بن صالح العثيمين»، 2207 - 4600 هل يقع طلاق من طلق امرأته في طهر جامعها فيه؟ ابن عثيمين — youtube.com

The Arabic text is a machine transcription of the audio recording.

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