A man saying to his wife: “I am haram to you,” and whether this counts as zihar

The questioner:
The questioner: If a man says to his wife, “It is haram for you not to do such-and-such,” and he says that he does not intend to make his wife forbidden to himself, does this count as zihar?

The Shaykh:
If he says what?

The questioner:
If he says to his wife, “It is haram for you not to do such-and-such,” and he says he does not intend to make his wife forbidden to himself,

The Shaykh:
and he says.

The questioner:
He does not intend to make his wife forbidden to himself. Does this count as zihar?

The Shaykh:
This requires that he come for a fatwa, or go to the court and appear before the judge or the mufti. At that point, his statement is recorded, written down, and signed, and then he is given the fatwa or informed of the ruling according to the Shari'ah. A general fatwa like this is not something we issue, because it requires clarification and verification.

The presenter:
May Allah reward you.