The Ruling on Denying Ijma' (Scholarly Consensus) in Its Absolute Form
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Question:
Honorable Shaykh, some scholars say that ijma' (scholarly consensus) is not a proof, but rather one takes comfort with it; because there is no ijma' that does not rely on an explicit text, and the claim of ijma' in many issues is subject to scrutiny. What is your opinion of this statement?
Answer:
Denying ijma' (scholarly consensus) in its absolute form is kufr (disbelief) and riddah (apostasy) from Islam. Denying ijma' in its absolute form—what we stated regarding the denial of ijma' in its absolute form—is that I am a disbeliever. As for the one who denies some forms of ijma', this is a matter for consideration: is al-Shafi'i's statement correct or not? Because in the case of the Shi'ah, ijma' was claimed, but no ijma' actually occurred. However, if one denies ijma' in its absolute form, saying that it is not a proof, then he is a disbeliever, disbelieving in Allah the Exalted and Majestic. This is because ijma' exists, and praise be to Allah. The scholars agreed on the creed, and they agreed on the tawhid (oneness of Allah) of Allah the Exalted and Majestic, and they agreed on the prohibition of riba (usury or interest), and they agreed on the prohibition of zina (unlawful sexual intercourse), and they agreed on matters known from the religion by necessity. The one who denies ijma' in its absolute form is a disbeliever. As for the one who denies some forms of ijma', he may have some merit in that, yes.
Honorable Shaykh, some scholars say that ijma' (scholarly consensus) is not a proof, but rather one takes comfort with it; because there is no ijma' that does not rely on an explicit text, and the claim of ijma' in many issues is subject to scrutiny. What is your opinion of this statement?
Answer:
Denying ijma' (scholarly consensus) in its absolute form is kufr (disbelief) and riddah (apostasy) from Islam. Denying ijma' in its absolute form—what we stated regarding the denial of ijma' in its absolute form—is that I am a disbeliever. As for the one who denies some forms of ijma', this is a matter for consideration: is al-Shafi'i's statement correct or not? Because in the case of the Shi'ah, ijma' was claimed, but no ijma' actually occurred. However, if one denies ijma' in its absolute form, saying that it is not a proof, then he is a disbeliever, disbelieving in Allah the Exalted and Majestic. This is because ijma' exists, and praise be to Allah. The scholars agreed on the creed, and they agreed on the tawhid (oneness of Allah) of Allah the Exalted and Majestic, and they agreed on the prohibition of riba (usury or interest), and they agreed on the prohibition of zina (unlawful sexual intercourse), and they agreed on matters known from the religion by necessity. The one who denies ijma' in its absolute form is a disbeliever. As for the one who denies some forms of ijma', he may have some merit in that, yes.
Source
حكم إنكار الإجماع مطلقاً أو إنكار بعض صوره ؟ — alfawzan.live
The Arabic text is a machine transcription of the audio recording.
