The ruling on one who has intercourse with his wife after the tawaf of 'Umrah
Machine translationRead the Arabic original
Question:
May Allah reward you. The Tajik questioner says: A person performed the tawaf of 'Umrah without being in a state of ritual purity, then he completed his 'Umrah and went to his country. He is married, and he had intercourse. What is the ruling on this action?
Answer:
He had intercourse, so his 'Umrah became invalid. He has several things to do. First, he must go, because he is still in the state of ihram. He must avoid the prohibitions of ihram and go to Makkah. He must proceed with the invalid 'Umrah and perform its acts, then he must go out to the miqat from which he first entered ihram. He must enter ihram there for a new 'Umrah to make up for the invalid one, and he must perform it in the required manner. He must slaughter a fidyah (ransom payment) in Makkah and distribute it to the poor of the Haram.
May Allah reward you. The Tajik questioner says: A person performed the tawaf of 'Umrah without being in a state of ritual purity, then he completed his 'Umrah and went to his country. He is married, and he had intercourse. What is the ruling on this action?
Answer:
He had intercourse, so his 'Umrah became invalid. He has several things to do. First, he must go, because he is still in the state of ihram. He must avoid the prohibitions of ihram and go to Makkah. He must proceed with the invalid 'Umrah and perform its acts, then he must go out to the miqat from which he first entered ihram. He must enter ihram there for a new 'Umrah to make up for the invalid one, and he must perform it in the required manner. He must slaughter a fidyah (ransom payment) in Makkah and distribute it to the poor of the Haram.
Source
أداء طواف العمرة على غير طهارة — alfawzan.live
The Arabic text is a machine transcription of the audio recording.