The Ruling on a Wife’s Milk from Her Previous Husband

Question:
Or, Shaykh, if a man marries a divorced woman who had breast milk from a previous husband, and this milk continued until the time of this marriage, but he did not improve this milk, nor did he cause it to increase from her, so that he did not become her father through nursing.

Answer:
This milk belongs to the first husband without any doubt. But does it also have an effect for the second husband by virtue of intercourse? This is a matter of consideration. As for the first husband, the milk is his without any doubt. And if the second husband’s intercourse was the cause of an increase in the milk, an increase in the milk, then there is no doubt that he shares in it and it becomes forbidden to him. However, if the milk did not increase beyond what it was after the first husband, this is a matter of consideration and difficulty. The default is that it has no effect. The default is that it has no effect. Yes.