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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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Is it correct to say that the argument (hujjah) is established against the one to whom the Book and the Sunnah have reached, and that general legislation (tashri') is disbelief?

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The questioner:
He says: Honorable Shaykh, some of the youth describe the one who holds that the argument is established against the one to whom the Book and the Sunnah have reached, and who holds that general legislation is disbelief. Is this statement correct?

The Shaykh:
Because some people.

The questioner:
As mentioned, some people describe the one who holds that the argument is established against the one to whom the Book and the Sunnah have reached, and who holds that general legislation is disbelief. Is this correct?

The Shaykh:
How is general legislation?

The questioner:
Yes, yes.

The Shaykh:
The argument is established against the one to whom the Qur'an has reached and who knows, who understands the meaning of the Qur'an, because he is an Arab who understands the meaning of the speech. But if he is a non-Arab and does not understand the meaning of the Arabic speech, then the argument is not established against him until the meaning is translated for him, until the meaning is translated for him. As for the Arab who understands the Qur'an that was revealed in his language, the mere reaching of the Qur'an to him is sufficient. Allah the Exalted said:
And this Qur'an was revealed to me that I may warn you thereby and whomever it reaches.وَأُوحِيَ إِلَيَّ هَٰذَا الْقُرْآنُ لِأُنذِرَكُم بِهِ وَمَن بَلَغَ
[Al-An'am 6:19]
The Messenger (peace and blessings be upon him) said:
Convey from meبلغوا عني
Even if it is one verseولو ايه
For the Arab, it is sufficient that the verse or the hadith reaches him, because he is an Arab who understands the meaning of the speech. Even if some things are hidden from him, but in general he knows this; he knows the meaning of shirk (associating partners with Allah), he knows the meaning of faith, he knows the meaning of kufr (disbelief), he knows the prohibition of zina (unlawful sexual intercourse), the prohibition of khamr (intoxicants), the prohibition of riba (usury or interest). He is an Arab who knows these matters, so the reaching of the argument is sufficient for him. Yes. As for the non-Arab who does not know the Arabic language, it is necessary that it be translated for him. So if the meaning is translated for him and he understands it, the argument is established against him. Yes.
Source قناة «العلامة الدكتور صالح الفوزان»، هل يصح القول بأن الحجة تقوم على من بلغه الكتاب والسنة وأن التشريع العام كفر؟ للشيخ الفوزان — youtube.com

The Arabic text is a machine transcription of the audio recording.

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