The Ruling on Touching a Child’s Genitals During Cleaning and the Invalidity of Ablution
Machine translationRead the Arabic original
Question:
A woman performed the full ritual bath for prayer, or rather, she performed the ablution for prayer. Before she prayed, she washed her child after he urinated, and after that, she washed her hands after cleaning the child. Is her ablution considered valid or not?
Answer:
If she touches his genitals, her ablution is invalidated. However, if she washed him without a barrier, meaning without a cloth, or if she did so through a barrier, her ablution is not invalidated. But if she directly touches his genitals with her hand, her ablution is invalidated. She has to repeat the ablution, meaning the washing of the face and hands, the wiping of the head, and the washing of the feet. As for cleaning oneself, that is for urine and specifically for that. Yes.
A woman performed the full ritual bath for prayer, or rather, she performed the ablution for prayer. Before she prayed, she washed her child after he urinated, and after that, she washed her hands after cleaning the child. Is her ablution considered valid or not?
Answer:
If she touches his genitals, her ablution is invalidated. However, if she washed him without a barrier, meaning without a cloth, or if she did so through a barrier, her ablution is not invalidated. But if she directly touches his genitals with her hand, her ablution is invalidated. She has to repeat the ablution, meaning the washing of the face and hands, the wiping of the head, and the washing of the feet. As for cleaning oneself, that is for urine and specifically for that. Yes.
Source
فتاوى الحج 1410 هـ - 17-أخرى — archive.org (33:16)
The Arabic text is a machine transcription of the audio recording.