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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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The buyer's request to the seller for a reduction after a loss

Machine translationRead the Arabic original
Question:
Please inform us about a man who bought sheep from someone for fifteen thousand riyals. Then the buyer lost about eight thousand riyals on them, so he went back to the seller and said, "I lost money on the sheep, and I want you to reduce the amount for me." The seller said to him, "I will give you one thousand riyals." Is this permissible? Because some people say that this is *istirda'* (extracting money from the seller), and *istirda'* is forbidden. What is *istirda'*? May Allah reward you with good.

Answer:
If they reach a mutual agreement, there is no harm. And there is no harm in being lenient if he lost on the merchandise and asked his brother to forgive him a portion of it. There is no blame in this. The Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) said: "Whoever reduces the price of his sale, the most he reduces is the most he is forgiven." So if they agree that the seller forgives the buyer a portion of the price because of the loss, or because he was overcharged in the purchase, or because he lacked insight in the purchase, and his brother is lenient with him and reduces the price for him, there is no harm. As for the legal ruling, that is for a court to decide. But a settlement between the seller and the buyer whereby the seller reduces part of the price is not blameworthy, even if some people call it *istirda'*. There is no harm in that, provided the buyer is truthful that he lost and was harmed by this merchandise because he was rushed in buying it, or was overcharged in buying it, or the market price dropped, or something similar. If he asks his brother to forgive him a portion of it or to remit it, there is no harm. Yes.
Source ندوات الجامع الكبير مع الأسئلة - 55 — archive.org (20:51)

The Arabic text is a machine transcription of the audio recording.

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