If the fetus is aborted due to the husband’s intercourse with his wife, is expiation obligatory in that case?
Machine translationRead the Arabic original
Question:
From the south, Hasan has two questions. Go ahead, Hasan. Hello, peace be upon you. And upon you, peace. And upon you, peace. I have two questions for the Shaykh, if you please. The first. First, my mother was pregnant about twenty years ago, eight months along, and intercourse occurred between her and my father, so the fetus was aborted. Does she have to pay an expiation, for example? Wait, the Shaykh will answer.
Answer:
If the abortion of the fetus was caused by the father’s intercourse with her, then he owes the expiation; he owes the blood money and the expiation, because this is a case of accidental killing. And if the abortion of the fetus was not caused by the man’s intercourse with his wife, then he owes nothing. Yes.
From the south, Hasan has two questions. Go ahead, Hasan. Hello, peace be upon you. And upon you, peace. And upon you, peace. I have two questions for the Shaykh, if you please. The first. First, my mother was pregnant about twenty years ago, eight months along, and intercourse occurred between her and my father, so the fetus was aborted. Does she have to pay an expiation, for example? Wait, the Shaykh will answer.
Answer:
If the abortion of the fetus was caused by the father’s intercourse with her, then he owes the expiation; he owes the blood money and the expiation, because this is a case of accidental killing. And if the abortion of the fetus was not caused by the man’s intercourse with his wife, then he owes nothing. Yes.
Source
قناة «العلامة الدكتور صالح الفوزان»، [3415] إذا سقط الجنين بسبب جماع الرجل زوجته فهل تجب الكفارة في ذلك؟ - صالح الفوزان — youtube.com
The Arabic text is a machine transcription of the audio recording.