What is the meaning of the hadith: "The deceased is punished by the weeping of his family over him"?

The questioner : Is there a valid point in al-Bukhari's (may Allah have mercy on him) statement and that of those who agreed with him in this matter? Or is it an addition to what we also preferred? We preferred that the punishment referred to here is disciplinary, as we looked at it, but is there also a point in his statement regarding one who instructed his family to do it, or it was their custom and he did not stop them?

The Shaykh : This is one of the answers given by those who assumed that the punishment is a penalty. He said that this applies to one who instructed them to do it, or whose family used to do it and he did not forbid them.

The questioner : If he knew about this matter, if he instructed them or it was their custom and he did not succeed, is he punished?

The Shaykh : Yes, it is known. If he instructed them, there is no doubt that he is punished. If he did not instruct them, but it was their custom to do it, this is a matter of hesitation, because perhaps what prevented him from forbidding them was fear, inability, or something similar.

The questioner : Well, our Shaykh, does this fall under this hadith, or under other evidence?

The Shaykh : That this hadith is understood in light of the other evidence. That he is punished if he ordered it, or if it was their custom and he did not forbid it. Or that the intended meaning is that the disbeliever is punished by the weeping of his family over him.