The Amount of the Bridal Gift for a Woman with Whom Her Husband Had Intercourse and Then Divorced Her Before Consummation
Machine translationRead the Arabic original
Question:
This is another questioner who says: If a man contracts marriage with a woman and secludes himself with her, but does not have intercourse with her, and then divorces her, how much of the mahr (bridal gift) or sadaq (bridal gift) is she entitled to?
Answer:
She is entitled to the entire mahr because he secluded himself with her. Mere seclusion with her establishes the full mahr upon him. This is the position of the Rightly Guided Caliphs and the majority of scholars. Yes, even if he did not have intercourse with her, his seclusion with her is a form of taking her as lawful, a taking of her as lawful. Therefore, the mahr is established upon him. Yes.
This is another questioner who says: If a man contracts marriage with a woman and secludes himself with her, but does not have intercourse with her, and then divorces her, how much of the mahr (bridal gift) or sadaq (bridal gift) is she entitled to?
Answer:
She is entitled to the entire mahr because he secluded himself with her. Mere seclusion with her establishes the full mahr upon him. This is the position of the Rightly Guided Caliphs and the majority of scholars. Yes, even if he did not have intercourse with her, his seclusion with her is a form of taking her as lawful, a taking of her as lawful. Therefore, the mahr is established upon him. Yes.
Source
قناة «إذاعة القرآن الكريم»، نور على الدرب مع فضيلة الشيخ صالح الفوزان ح7284 — youtube.com (12:16)
The Arabic text is a machine transcription of the audio recording.
