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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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What is the ruling on a man saying, “It is haram (forbidden) upon me”?

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Question:
He says: Honorable Shaykh, may Allah grant you success, what is the ruling on the one who says, “It is haram upon me,” meaning if I do not fulfill his request, he says, “It is haram upon me,” meaning I will commit a haram act? Is this statement correct?

Answer:
This is a custom among people. The word “haram” can refer to his wife, it can refer to food being haram, or it can be interpreted in other ways. One must determine what he means by “haram.” If he means his wife, it is zihar. If he means food or clothing, it becomes an oath that requires expiation. If he did not intend his wife, nor food, nor drink, nor anything else, it is taken to be an oath that requires expiation. Yes.
Source قناة «العلامة الدكتور صالح الفوزان»، [4558- 4717] ما حكم قول الرجل عليَّ الحرام؟ - الشيخ صالح الفوزان — youtube.com

The Arabic text is a machine transcription of the audio recording.

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