What does one do if he said, “It is haram for me,” in a moment of anger and then regretted it?
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Question:
I have come from Jizan to seek a ruling on a matter that occurred between me and my younger brother. I am seeking a ruling on a matter that occurred between me and my younger brother during a dispute and misunderstanding. In a moment of anger, my temper flared and I said, “It is haram,” and I left. Because I do not speak to my brother, and I do not enter his home, and I regret what happened on my part, I ask Your Eminence to inform me about this problem of mine?
Answer:
If a person says, “It is talaq for me,” or “It is haram for me,” meaning that he will not speak to so-and-so, or will not enter so-and-so’s home, or will not eat so-and-so’s food, or will not eat so-and-so’s slaughtered animal, and his intention is to restrain himself and to prevent this man, then if he says, “It is talaq for me,” regarding not eating the slaughtered animal, he does not have to go to the trouble of it; if he says, “It is talaq” or “It is haram” regarding not speaking to him, he is trying to restrain himself from speaking to him; if he says, “It is talaq” or “It is haram” regarding not entering his house, he is trying to restrain himself from entering his house. He did not intend to make his wife haram, nor did he intend to divorce his wife, but his intention was to restrain himself with this speech. Yes.
This is preserving the oath, according to the correct opinion of the scholars. So it is preserving the oath, and upon him is the expiation for the oath. No haram or talaq takes effect upon him unless his intention was other than talaq. His intention was to restrain himself from entering so-and-so’s home, or speaking to so-and-so, or preventing his wife from doing so, or preventing a guest from slaughtering an animal for him, or the like. This is the expiation for the oath, which is feeding ten poor travelers, ten poor people, the number of fingers, ten, or clothing them. If he gives each person half a sa’ of dates, which is one and a half kilograms, or rice, or other staple food of the country, or clothes him with a qubaysa, then that suffices him. If he is unable and cannot afford it, he fasts three days. As for if he says, “It is talaq for me,” or “It is haram for me,” regarding so-and-so’s wife, and he is the one who has the authority to pronounce talaq, the authority to pronounce haram, the authority to make his wife haram, the authority to effect talaq, if he enters, then he has divorced her, and upon him is the expiation for zihar. There is a distinction in this if this is the case with you. Otherwise, come to us at the Ifta’ office or at the residence so that you are given an answer to the king. Yes.
I have come from Jizan to seek a ruling on a matter that occurred between me and my younger brother. I am seeking a ruling on a matter that occurred between me and my younger brother during a dispute and misunderstanding. In a moment of anger, my temper flared and I said, “It is haram,” and I left. Because I do not speak to my brother, and I do not enter his home, and I regret what happened on my part, I ask Your Eminence to inform me about this problem of mine?
Answer:
If a person says, “It is talaq for me,” or “It is haram for me,” meaning that he will not speak to so-and-so, or will not enter so-and-so’s home, or will not eat so-and-so’s food, or will not eat so-and-so’s slaughtered animal, and his intention is to restrain himself and to prevent this man, then if he says, “It is talaq for me,” regarding not eating the slaughtered animal, he does not have to go to the trouble of it; if he says, “It is talaq” or “It is haram” regarding not speaking to him, he is trying to restrain himself from speaking to him; if he says, “It is talaq” or “It is haram” regarding not entering his house, he is trying to restrain himself from entering his house. He did not intend to make his wife haram, nor did he intend to divorce his wife, but his intention was to restrain himself with this speech. Yes.
This is preserving the oath, according to the correct opinion of the scholars. So it is preserving the oath, and upon him is the expiation for the oath. No haram or talaq takes effect upon him unless his intention was other than talaq. His intention was to restrain himself from entering so-and-so’s home, or speaking to so-and-so, or preventing his wife from doing so, or preventing a guest from slaughtering an animal for him, or the like. This is the expiation for the oath, which is feeding ten poor travelers, ten poor people, the number of fingers, ten, or clothing them. If he gives each person half a sa’ of dates, which is one and a half kilograms, or rice, or other staple food of the country, or clothes him with a qubaysa, then that suffices him. If he is unable and cannot afford it, he fasts three days. As for if he says, “It is talaq for me,” or “It is haram for me,” regarding so-and-so’s wife, and he is the one who has the authority to pronounce talaq, the authority to pronounce haram, the authority to make his wife haram, the authority to effect talaq, if he enters, then he has divorced her, and upon him is the expiation for zihar. There is a distinction in this if this is the case with you. Otherwise, come to us at the Ifta’ office or at the residence so that you are given an answer to the king. Yes.
Source
قناة «فضيلة الشيخ ابن باز Alsheikh Binbaz»، 266 ماذا يفعل من قال كلمة حرام علي وقت الغضب وندم بعدها؟ للإمام ابن باز — youtube.com
The Arabic text is a machine transcription of the audio recording.
