The ruling on purchasing a property from a company that does not own it, on the condition that the company buys it and then sells it

The questioner : Among the questions received regarding installment payments is this one: I want to buy a property from a company that does not own it. I want to buy a property from a company that does not own it, but rather I point it out to them, and then they buy it and sell it to me on installments, and I have the option, so I am not obligated to buy, as they say. Is this one of the disguised forms? That is, is this one of the issues of the *hila* (deceptive scheme)? And as for their saying that they do not

The Shaykh : obligate me, if I were to ask: Is this statement true? A man comes to a merchant and says, "Buy me such-and-such a car from such-and-such a place." The merchant says, "I have no objection." The merchant goes and buys it from that place and brings it to this man. Do you think this man would say, "I do not want the car"? In reality, he did not come except to specify it, and Allah the Exalted is not deceived.
It is he who came wanting it, specifying how to identify it, saying, "The car is such-and-such, the manager is such-and-such, its description is such-and-such, its description is such-and-such." Then he exaggerates, saying this is far away. This is a difference that contradicts reality. Logically, he came saying he exaggerated, but in reality, absolutely not, it is not possible to exaggerate. Then it was said to me that some merchants, if a customer exaggerates after the merchant has bought it for him, they write his name on the list of those with whom they will never deal again after that day. And this means that it is a punishment, and it is established that this person must take the car and it is not possible for him not to take it. Yes, indeed.