The condition for a marriage contract to be considered valid
Machine translationRead the Arabic original
Question:
If he had a valid marriage before and then divorced, it is considered valid.
Answer:
Yes, if he had sexual intercourse with her, and likewise the contract if he had sexual intercourse with her. As for the mere contract, no, it is not sufficient; it is not sufficient until he has sexual intercourse with her.
If he had a valid marriage before and then divorced, it is considered valid.
Answer:
Yes, if he had sexual intercourse with her, and likewise the contract if he had sexual intercourse with her. As for the mere contract, no, it is not sufficient; it is not sufficient until he has sexual intercourse with her.
Source
شرح بلوغ المرام [ ابن باز ] [ الشرح الجديد ]، كتاب الجنايات : أحاديث في الجنايات — islamhouse.com (9:50)
The Arabic text is a machine transcription of the audio recording.