A man saying to his wife: “It is haram (forbidden) for me”

The questioner:
The questioner: If a man says to his wife, “It is haram (forbidden) for me that you do such and such,” and he states that he does not intend to make his wife haram (forbidden) to him, does this count as zihar?

The Shaykh:
If he says what?

The questioner:
If he says to his wife, “It is haram for you not to do such-and-such,” and he says he does not intend to make his wife forbidden to himself,

The Shaykh:
and he says.

The questioner:
He does not intend to make his wife haram (forbidden) to him; does this count as zihar?

The Shaykh:
This requires that he come for a fatwa (scholarly legal ruling) or go to the court and appear before the judge or the mufti (a scholar who issues fatwas). At that time, his statement is recorded, written down, and he signs it, and then he is given the fatwa or informed of the Islamic ruling. A general fatwa like this is not something we issue, because it requires clarification and verification. Yes.

The presenter:
May Allah reward you.