If a traveler arrives in his hometown while not fasting during the day of Ramadan and finds that his wife has become pure from menstruation, is it permissible for him to have intercourse with her?

Question : Now, if the one who has been granted permission to break his fast arrives and finds that his wife has become pure from menstruation on that day, is she required to abstain?

Answer : No, because the removal of the impediment does not give rise to the obligation. Accordingly, if he arrives while not fasting and his wife has become pure from menstruation on that day, it is permissible for him to have intercourse with her in his hometown. One might even pose this as a riddle: A man who is of legal age, sane, and obligated to observe the law has intercourse with his wife on a day in Ramadan, in the middle of the day after the midday prayer. We told him, “May Allah bless you both in your intercourse.” How is this possible? We say that this applies to the scenario we mentioned: if he arrives while not fasting and the wife has become pure from menstruation during the day, he may have intercourse with her because abstention is not obligatory. As for their claim that abstention is obligatory out of respect for the time, we say that this time is not respected in the case of the one who is not fasting, as evidenced by the fact that he eats and drinks at the beginning of it. Likewise, the time is not respected in her case, because this day is not divisible; it cannot be that the beginning of it is not respected while the end of it is respected. It is one single day.