Is it correct to say that Lut (peace be upon him) did not come to his people with the oneness of Allah, but rather came to them with the prohibition of that abominable, forbidden act?

The questioner:
He says: Some people appeared on the satellite channels and said that Lut (peace be upon him) did not come to his people with the oneness of Allah, but rather came to them with the prohibition of that abominable, forbidden act.

The Shaykh:
Yes, because there is no evidence that they were polytheists, but they committed this abominable act, and there is no evidence that the people of Lut were polytheists. Whoever has evidence for this should bring it.

The questioner:
He stands up.

The Shaykh:
And they were polytheists, and he left off prohibiting them from shirk (associating partners with Allah), so this seems strange, but there is no evidence that they were polytheists. Yes.

The questioner:
He says: Honorable Shaykh, may Allah grant you success.

The Shaykh:
If one commits the abominable act, it is prohibited, even if he is a believer, and the hudud (fixed Qur'anic punishments) are also applied to him; the hudud are applied by killing, or by flogging, or by stoning, or... even if he is a believer.