What is the ruling if a man has intercourse with his wife without ejaculation in Ramadan, believing that intercourse is ejaculation?
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Question:
The questioner says: I had intercourse in the month of Ramadan, but I did not ejaculate, and I believed that intercourse is ejaculation. Is there anything required of me in that? May Allah reward you with good.
Answer:
Yes, if he had intercourse in the private part and inserted into the private part, then the expiation is required of him even if he did not ejaculate. The expiation is required of him even if he did not ejaculate, because intercourse took place. It is the freeing of a slave. If he does not find one, then he fasts two consecutive months, along with making up the day on which he had intercourse.
The questioner says: I had intercourse in the month of Ramadan, but I did not ejaculate, and I believed that intercourse is ejaculation. Is there anything required of me in that? May Allah reward you with good.
Answer:
Yes, if he had intercourse in the private part and inserted into the private part, then the expiation is required of him even if he did not ejaculate. The expiation is required of him even if he did not ejaculate, because intercourse took place. It is the freeing of a slave. If he does not find one, then he fasts two consecutive months, along with making up the day on which he had intercourse.
Source
قناة «العلامة الدكتور صالح الفوزان»، ما الحكم إذا جامع الرجل زوجته بدون إنزال في رمضان معتقدًا أن الجماع هو الإنزال؟ للشيخ صالح الفوزان — youtube.com
The Arabic text is a machine transcription of the audio recording.