What is the meaning of the jurists' statement: If a man pronounces an explicit divorce but says he intended something other than divorce?

The questioner : Enough. How does he swear? How? When he swears, we return to his oath, meaning

The Shaykh : The criterion is that the wording is explicit now; the wording is explicit, and his intending the opposite of the apparent meaning is possible, but it is contrary to the apparent meaning. So we say: If he says, "I intended such and such," then it is according to his oath, according to his oath, without an oath, without an oath, according to his oath.

The questioner : How is it according to his oath?

The Shaykh : It means that if he says to his wife, "I did not intend divorce," it is settled that there is no divorce.