Guiding the statement of Ibn al-Qayyim: (The two nouns are not unified) from the perspective of grammar

The questioner : Regarding the statement "The two nouns are not unified," we will clarify for you from the perspective of grammar. Does this grammatical analysis contradict the well-known usage of the Arabs, or is it in agreement with it?

The Shaykh : Yes, where is one of them? Fine. May it be of benefit.

The questioner : The subject and the predicate. If he tells you that it is Tamimi.

The Shaykh : The issue arises if he tells you that it is Qurayshi, but he holds that the dual form requires the alif absolutely. Well, there is a way out for it. It can be said that the author (may Allah have mercy on him) followed the language of Banu Tamim, or it can be said that he followed the language of those who require the alif for the dual absolutely. However, I tell you that as for the authors who wrote after the language changed, they must follow the language of Quraysh, which is the language of the Qur'an. But if a man comes to you wanting to argue, he has a way out. Yes.