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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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What is the ruling on a man pronouncing divorce during a period of purity in which he had intercourse with his wife?

Machine translationRead the Arabic original
Question:
Your Eminence the Shaykh, this questioner says: My husband divorced me while I was in a period of purity in which he had intercourse with me. The divorce document reached me while I was at my parents' home. I have heard that divorce does not take effect during a period of purity in which the husband has intercourse with his wife. Is this a general ruling or specific to the period following menstruation? Does the divorce take effect in this case or not? It is known that he had repeated the word "divorce" twice before that, but without any documents or papers to prove it.

Answer:
This requires a detailed explanation. He must take her back. We look into the matter. This requires a detailed explanation. He must take her back, and we look into the matter, or he should refer the case to the court.
Source قناة «فضيلة الشيخ ابن باز Alsheikh Binbaz»، 139 ما حكم أن يطلق الرجل في طهر جامع فيه؟ للإمام ابن باز — youtube.com

The Arabic text is a machine transcription of the audio recording.

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