The ruling on the money obtained by a broker
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If a man wants to sell his house, he goes to a broker to sell the house and sets a price for him, saying: Your share is such and such a portion of this price or this money if you sell the house. So this broker goes and agrees with a buyer and increases the price for him, and this increase belongs to the broker. Thus, he obtains this increase, and also from the seller. Is this transaction permissible?
If the owner of the house said to him: Sell it for ten thousand, and you get (10%) or (5%) or (1%) according to what they agree upon. So here, if he sells it for more than ten thousand, the increase belongs to the owner of the house, and the broker gets only his allotted share, (10%) or less or more.As for if he says: Sell it for ten thousand, and whatever is more is yours, and he agreed, so there is nothing wrong with it. If he sells it for more than ten thousand, the increase belongs to him.
If the owner of the house said to him: Sell it for ten thousand, and you get (10%) or (5%) or (1%) according to what they agree upon. So here, if he sells it for more than ten thousand, the increase belongs to the owner of the house, and the broker gets only his allotted share, (10%) or less or more.As for if he says: Sell it for ten thousand, and whatever is more is yours, and he agreed, so there is nothing wrong with it. If he sells it for more than ten thousand, the increase belongs to him.