(There is no prayer in the presence of food, nor while one is struggling with the two excretions).

The Shaykh : Please go ahead.

The questioner : I actually have more than one question, but let us begin with the hadith . What is the meaning of ? Is it an absolute "no prayer," or is it "no complete prayer"? Please give us a ruling, may Allah reward you with good.

The Shaykh: There are two opinions among the scholars regarding this issue. The first is that it means "no complete prayer," meaning that if a Muslim prays in the presence of food—and by "in the presence of food" the intended meaning is not the apparent one, i.e., that a table is set here, which is the literal meaning of "in the presence of food"—but rather he had already eaten until he was full and drunk until he was satisfied, yet food is still placed there; is this what is intended? The answer is no. Rather, the intended meaning is "no presence" , meaning he is eager for it and in need of it, yet he prays. So is this prayer valid or not? As I said earlier, after the clarification, I state the first opinion, which is the view of the majority of scholars: the intended meaning is the negation of the perfection of the prayer, not the negation of its validity, , i.e., no complete prayer. And peace be upon you.
The second position is that the hadith is to be taken at its apparent meaning. That is, whoever prays while desiring food and in need of it, and prays while his heart is preoccupied with it, his prayer is invalid. Likewise, this is the completion of the hadith: "nor while one is struggling with the two excretions." The meaning is the same, whether in the first part or the second part. So, whoever says in the first part that it is "no complete prayer," he says the same in the second part. And whoever says that it is "no prayer" absolutely, meaning that his prayer is invalid, he also says that the one who prays while having the urge to defecate, and is in that state, his prayer is also, according to the second position, an invalid prayer.
What led the majority of those who hold the first position to interpret his statement, peace and blessings be upon him: as "no complete prayer," is that matters come to my mind, among which is that the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) mentioned in some authentic hadiths narrated in Sahih al-Bukhari and Sahih Muslim that when the one praying stands to pray, Satan comes and pulls a hair from his rear, making him think that something has come out of him that invalidates the prayer. So, on this occasion, he (peace and blessings be upon him) said: So, a person may feel some movement inside him, but he does not find wind and does not hear a sound. In that case, he does not break off from his prayer. Consider this as an indication that his statement, peace and blessings be upon him, in the first hadith: means only "no complete prayer." This is what comes to my mind in answering this question.