If a matter is specific to the disbelievers and then becomes widespread among the Muslims, it is not considered imitating them, but does the Shari'ah aim for differing from the disbelievers?
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The questioner : May Allah reward you with good. Regarding the rule mentioned by Imam Malik, if a matter becomes widespread and its origin is from the disbelievers... among the Muslims, then doing it is not considered imitating them because it has become widespread among them. But Shaykh, if we look at the Shari'ah's aim to differ from the polytheists and be distinct from them, should we not say that we should differ from what was originally theirs for the sake of this matter?
The Shaykh : The word "similar" implies that there is a sharing in something. If these specific people, meaning the disbelievers, are characterized by something, then the one who does that thing which the disbelievers are characterized by is similar to them. But if it is part of our affair and their affair, we do not say that he is similar to them.
The questioner : Shaykh, from the perspective of avoiding their opposition?
The Shaykh : Yes.
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : From the perspective of what?
The questioner : From the perspective of avoiding their opposition, this is desirable in the Shari'ah.
The Shaykh : If it becomes widespread, then there is no... in it, yes.
The Shaykh : The word "similar" implies that there is a sharing in something. If these specific people, meaning the disbelievers, are characterized by something, then the one who does that thing which the disbelievers are characterized by is similar to them. But if it is part of our affair and their affair, we do not say that he is similar to them.
The questioner : Shaykh, from the perspective of avoiding their opposition?
The Shaykh : Yes.
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : From the perspective of what?
The questioner : From the perspective of avoiding their opposition, this is desirable in the Shari'ah.
The Shaykh : If it becomes widespread, then there is no... in it, yes.