If the meaning of the verse is clear, but the person has not read the exegesis, does he interpret it?

The student: Sometimes, O Shaykh, a verse passes by... for a person whose meaning is very clear to him, meaning it is clear to him, even though he has never previously read an exegesis of it. Is it permissible for him to say, "Its apparent meaning is such and such," or should he say, "By Allah, I do not know, because I have not read an exegesis of this verse"?
The student: ...

The Shaykh : No, the thing that is clear now is its exegesis... the language is fine. If someone were to ask: What is the meaning of the saying of Allah the Exalted: If a layperson were to come, he would say, "Establish the prayer," meaning establish the prayer, saying Allahu Akbar, Allahu Akbar, the prayer has been established, and so on. This is forbidden. But A student of knowledge was asked about it, knowing that the meaning of iqamah is establishing a thing, meaning performing it in a straight manner. So he said the meaning of "Establish them" is "Come to them complete." There is no harm. Yes.