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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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Explanation of the words of Ibn Malik (may Allah have mercy on him): "And it is not permissible to begin with an indefinite noun *** unless it conveys a benefit, like 'a tiger at Zayd's.'"

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The Shaykh : Then he said: "And it is not permissible to begin with an indefinite noun":
This is one of the rulings regarding the subject (mubtada'), among the rulings of the subject is that it is not permissible to begin with it if it is an indefinite noun. So, one does not begin with an indefinite noun. Why? Because the subject is the one about whom a judgment is made, and the one about whom a judgment is made must be known (definite). An indefinite noun is not known, so how can a judgment be made about what is not known? Do not say: "A man is in the house." "A man is in the house" is not permissible. "A man is standing" is not permissible. Why? Because the subject is the one about whom a judgment is made, and a judgment is not made about an indefinite noun; a judgment is only made about a definite noun. For this reason, it is not permissible to begin with an indefinite noun.
He said: "Unless it conveys a benefit, like 'a tiger at Zayd's'": "Unless it conveys a benefit" means unless the indefinite noun conveys a benefit. If it conveys a benefit through generality, specificity, or otherwise, then it is permissible. An example is: "A tiger is at Zayd's." "At Zayd's" is a prepositional phrase serving as a fronted predicate, and "a tiger" is a delayed subject. And "a tiger" is a type of clothing. Is it an indefinite noun or a definite noun?
The student: It is an indefinite noun.

The Shaykh : It is an indefinite noun, and yet it is permissible to begin with it. So what is the rule we take from this example? We take from this example the rule: "Which is: if the indefinite noun is delayed, it is permissible to begin with it". Is that correct or not?
The student: Yes.

The Shaykh : So, it is permissible to begin with an indefinite noun if it occurs in a delayed position: like "A tiger is at Zayd's." "A man is in the house": is that valid or not?
The student: It is correct.

The Shaykh : Glory be to Allah! If I said: "A man is in the house," it would not be valid. "A man is in the house" (with the prepositional phrase first) is valid. So, if the indefinite noun is delayed, it is permissible to begin with it.
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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