Continuation of the explanation of the author's statement: "If the intention is absent, one reverts to the cause of the oath and what prompted it"
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The Shaykh : Knowing this, if a person swears to do an impossible act, what is the ruling? The expiation is obligatory immediately because it is not possible for him to do it, so he is in a state of breaking the oath in all cases; we do not say, "Wait, perhaps you will do it."
The cause that made him swear is what we apply the oath to. So if he says, "By Allah, I will not speak to Zayd," based on the fact that he heard that Zayd is a lowly person and it is not befitting for someone like him to speak to him, and then it becomes clear to him that Zayd is a noble person, and he speaks to him, then here we say there is no breaking of the oath. Why? Because the cause that made him swear, right? It was shown to be non-existent. So at that time, there is no breaking of the oath. Or if he says, "By Allah, I will not enter this town," based on the fact that there is oppression in this town, and ruling by other than what Allah has revealed, and open sinfulness, and then it becomes clear that the matter is otherwise, and the town is one where ruling is by the law of Allah, and there is no oppression and no open sinfulness, then at that time, right?
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : No, he does not break the oath. That means he enters the town and resides in it and does not break the oath, because he only swore regarding a cause that was shown to be non-existent. Good.
The cause that made him swear is what we apply the oath to. So if he says, "By Allah, I will not speak to Zayd," based on the fact that he heard that Zayd is a lowly person and it is not befitting for someone like him to speak to him, and then it becomes clear to him that Zayd is a noble person, and he speaks to him, then here we say there is no breaking of the oath. Why? Because the cause that made him swear, right? It was shown to be non-existent. So at that time, there is no breaking of the oath. Or if he says, "By Allah, I will not enter this town," based on the fact that there is oppression in this town, and ruling by other than what Allah has revealed, and open sinfulness, and then it becomes clear that the matter is otherwise, and the town is one where ruling is by the law of Allah, and there is no oppression and no open sinfulness, then at that time, right?
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : No, he does not break the oath. That means he enters the town and resides in it and does not break the oath, because he only swore regarding a cause that was shown to be non-existent. Good.