What is the ruling on a man who has intercourse with his wife while he is in a state of ihram and she is in a state of ihram?
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The questioner : A man has intercourse with his wife while he is in a state of ihram and she is in a state of ihram and is coerced. Is there anything upon him for that, in order to block the means? We have taken the position that if he is in a state of ihram and she is in a state of ihram?
The Shaykh : I mean, how did you understand it?
The questioner : He is in a state of ihram with his wife who is in a state of ihram.
The Shaykh : The husband is in a state of ihram and she is in a state of ihram.
The questioner : Yes, and he coerced her into intercourse.
The Shaykh : Yes, so there is nothing upon her.
The questioner : It is upon him.
The Shaykh : There is nothing upon him; he is only sinful.
The questioner : Perhaps he repeats it?
The Shaykh : He is sinful; it is obligatory for her to refrain.
The questioner : But he repeats it twice?
The Shaykh : In any case, the important thing is that there is nothing upon him because he is in a state of ihram, and there is nothing upon her because she was coerced.
The Shaykh : I mean, how did you understand it?
The questioner : He is in a state of ihram with his wife who is in a state of ihram.
The Shaykh : The husband is in a state of ihram and she is in a state of ihram.
The questioner : Yes, and he coerced her into intercourse.
The Shaykh : Yes, so there is nothing upon her.
The questioner : It is upon him.
The Shaykh : There is nothing upon him; he is only sinful.
The questioner : Perhaps he repeats it?
The Shaykh : He is sinful; it is obligatory for her to refrain.
The questioner : But he repeats it twice?
The Shaykh : In any case, the important thing is that there is nothing upon him because he is in a state of ihram, and there is nothing upon her because she was coerced.