The Ruling on Swearing by Prohibition Against One's Wife
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Question:
The listener Muhammad Sulayman Muhammad sent a question, saying: If a man swears an oath against his wife and says to her, “It is forbidden for me that you go to so-and-so’s house, for example, a neighbor’s or the like,” and after some time the wife goes to that house which he swore against, what is the ruling?
Answer:
This requires a detailed explanation: If his intention is to make her forbidden to him if she does that, then he owes the expiation for zihar, which is the most correct opinion among the scholars. It is freeing a slave. If he is unable to do so, he fasts for two consecutive months. If he is unable to do that, he feeds sixty poor people, thirty sa’ (a dry measure of about 3 kg) for each poor person, half a sa’ of the local staple food, before he touches her.
However, if the intention is to prevent her, warn her, frighten her, or threaten her, then he owes the expiation for an oath if he violates it. He does not owe the expiation for zihar, but rather the expiation for an oath, because it is considered an oath. The expiation is feeding ten poor people, or clothing them, or freeing a slave. If he is unable to do so, he fasts for three days, if his intention in this prohibition is to frighten and warn her. For example, if he says to her, “It is forbidden for me that I speak to so-and-so,” or “It is forbidden for me that you stay at so-and-so’s house,” or “It is forbidden for me that you attend the wedding of the family of so-and-so,” and his intention is to prevent her, then it is like this. If he says, “It is forbidden for me that you visit the family of so-and-so,” and the intention is to threaten, frighten, and warn, and not to make her forbidden to him if she does it, then it entails the expiation for an oath. Yes.
The presenter: May Allah reward you with good.
The listener Muhammad Sulayman Muhammad sent a question, saying: If a man swears an oath against his wife and says to her, “It is forbidden for me that you go to so-and-so’s house, for example, a neighbor’s or the like,” and after some time the wife goes to that house which he swore against, what is the ruling?
Answer:
This requires a detailed explanation: If his intention is to make her forbidden to him if she does that, then he owes the expiation for zihar, which is the most correct opinion among the scholars. It is freeing a slave. If he is unable to do so, he fasts for two consecutive months. If he is unable to do that, he feeds sixty poor people, thirty sa’ (a dry measure of about 3 kg) for each poor person, half a sa’ of the local staple food, before he touches her.
However, if the intention is to prevent her, warn her, frighten her, or threaten her, then he owes the expiation for an oath if he violates it. He does not owe the expiation for zihar, but rather the expiation for an oath, because it is considered an oath. The expiation is feeding ten poor people, or clothing them, or freeing a slave. If he is unable to do so, he fasts for three days, if his intention in this prohibition is to frighten and warn her. For example, if he says to her, “It is forbidden for me that I speak to so-and-so,” or “It is forbidden for me that you stay at so-and-so’s house,” or “It is forbidden for me that you attend the wedding of the family of so-and-so,” and his intention is to prevent her, then it is like this. If he says, “It is forbidden for me that you visit the family of so-and-so,” and the intention is to threaten, frighten, and warn, and not to make her forbidden to him if she does it, then it entails the expiation for an oath. Yes.
The presenter: May Allah reward you with good.
Source
binbaz.org.sa
The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.