What is the validity of the statement that anyone who is not negligent is excused by ignorance, even if they fall into major shirk (associating partners with Allah)?

Question:
A questioner says: We ask you, Honorable Shaykh, to clarify: Is the one who holds this phrase among the Murji'ah (a sect that excluded deeds from faith) who excuse by ignorance one whose ignorance is established without negligence, even in major shirk (associating partners with Allah)?

Answer:
After the sending of the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him), ignorance ceased. The pre-Islamic age of ignorance (jahiliyyah) was removed by the Qur'an and the Sunnah. Except for one who is cut off from the scholars and hears nothing. He hears neither Qur'an nor Sunnah, hears nothing, and has not heard of the sending of the Messenger (peace and blessings be upon him). This person is excused by ignorance. As for one who lives with the Muslims, in the lands of the Muslims, attends the prayers and the recitation of the Qur'an, and hears the Qur'an on the radio and in gatherings, how can he be ignorant? Until when will he be ignorant?
Yes, he is not ignorant; he hears, and the proof has been established against him. And Allah (Exalted and Majestic is He) said to His Prophet: So whoever the Qur'an reaches, the proof is established against him.
Unless he is a non-Arab who does not understand the language of the Qur'an, in which case it is necessary that its meaning be translated for him. As for the Arab who understands the Arabic language, if he hears the Qur'an, the proof is established against him. Peace be upon you.
And they became preoccupied with this issue of excusing by ignorance, so people became lax in matters. They said, "We are ignorant, so there is nothing on us." This is not permissible. Yes, excusing by ignorance is the domain of the scholars; it is not the domain of the self-taught or the ignorant, who circulate it and chew on it until they made easy for people the violations they are upon, saying, "We are ignorant." Yes.