If one wears socks over a state of ritual purity, then becomes ritually impure, and then wears a second pair of socks, does the ruling apply to the first pair? Do they mean that he removes the second pair?

Question:
Honorable Shaykh, may Allah grant you success. He says: If one wears socks over a state of ritual purity, then becomes ritually impure, and then wears a second pair of socks, does the ruling apply to the first pair? Do they mean that he removes the second pair?

Answer:
If he wipes over the first pair and wears the second pair over them, the ruling applies to the lower pair; because he began the wiping on them. As for if he becomes ritually impure and does not wipe, and then wears them, the ruling applies to the upper pair. And if one wears a sock over a sock before the state of impurity, they say that if one wears a sock over a sock before the state of impurity, the ruling applies to the upper one. That is, if his ablution is invalidated and then he wears a sock over his sock, the ruling applies to the lower one because it is after the obligation of wiping. But if he wore it before the state of impurity, the ruling applies to the upper one. Yes.