What is the ruling if one puts on the socks, becomes in a state of ritual impurity, prays the midday prayer, and then doubts whether he wiped before or after the midday prayer?

The questioner : And if he put them on, became in a state of ritual impurity, and prayed the midday prayer, then doubted whether he wiped before or after the midday prayer, and we said the beginning of the period

The Shaykh : the beginning of the period.

The questioner : And we said the beginning.

The Shaykh : The beginning of the period, the beginning of the period.

The questioner : To the hospital.

The Shaykh : Hmm?

The questioner : If from the time of the mosque.

The Shaykh : The end of the period in my view.

The questioner : And we said the beginning of the period is from the time of wiping. We based the ruling on the wiping being before the midday prayer, and on the prayer being after the wiping, because the default is that the prayer remains in his debt and the obligation to wash the feet, so we returned each of them to its default,

The Shaykh : Is this clear too? He says: If he put them on, became in a state of ritual impurity, and prayed the midday prayer, then doubted whether he wiped before or after the midday prayer? And we said the beginning of the period is from the time of wiping. We based the ruling on the wiping being before the midday prayer as a precaution, because if we base it on it being before the midday prayer, the beginning of the period is earlier. And we based the ruling on the prayer being after the wiping, so he would have prayed in a state of ritual impurity, if the wiping was after it, meaning he prayed in a state of ritual impurity, so he is required to make up the midday prayer because the default is that it remains in his debt, and the period of wiping begins before the midday prayer as a precaution, meaning we acted with precaution in both this and that, and Allah knows best.