Is the prohibition regarding the phrase "whoever disobeys them" due to shirk (associating partners with Allah)?

Question:
May Allah reward you, Your Eminence, father. He says: You mentioned (may Allah preserve you) that the meaning of "and whoever disobeys them" is that one is not a disbeliever unless he disobeys the Messenger alone. We have understood from some scholars that the prohibition is for the sake of shirk (associating partners with Allah). What is your guidance?

Answer:
For the sake of what? For the sake of shirk (associating partners with Allah)? No, it is so that it is not understood that one is not a disbeliever except if he disobeys both Allah and His Messenger, while one who disobeys one of them is not a disbeliever. Some people, and some of the common folk, might understand it that way. It is a prohibition to remove the ambiguity. Also, as the scholars said, the sermon... this requires detail and explanation, and this is a generalization. "Whoever disobeys them" contains a generalization. Yes.