What is the ruling on one who performs 'Umrah without entering the state of ihram?
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Question:
May Allah reward you. A woman performed 'Umrah three years ago and entered the Ka'bah without being in ihram. Is her 'Umrah valid, given that she performed a second 'Umrah from al-Tan'im on behalf of her father?
Answer:
If the intention is that she did not intend to enter ihram, that she did not intend to enter ihram, then she has no 'Umrah, because ihram is a pillar of 'Umrah, and it is not established except with it. But if the intention is that she intended to enter ihram but did not avoid the prohibitions?
Because some people think that ihram is the clothing, that it is wearing the special clothes for ihram, and that whoever does not wear them is not in ihram. This is a mistake. These are prohibitions, not the ihram itself; rather, these are only among the prohibitions of ihram. So if he intends it in his heart and recites the talbiyah, his ihram is valid even if he does not wear the clothes of ihram, but he owes a fidyah (ransom payment).
If he commits one of the prohibitions of ihram, it does not invalidate his ihram, except for sexual intercourse. Sexual intercourse is what invalidates the ritual. As for the other prohibitions, such as perfume, cutting the nails, and other prohibitions, and wearing sewn clothing for a man, and wearing the niqab (face veil) for a woman, and wearing gloves for a woman, these are prohibitions that do not invalidate the ihram, but he pays a fidyah (ransom payment) in their place. Either he slaughters a sheep in Makkah and distributes it to the poor, or he fasts for three days, or he feeds six poor people in the Haram (sacred precinct). This is a prohibition that does not invalidate the ihram, and it is compensated by the fidyah. So if this woman intended to enter ihram and recited the talbiyah, but did not avoid the prohibitions of ihram, then she owes the fidyah and her 'Umrah is valid.
May Allah reward you. A woman performed 'Umrah three years ago and entered the Ka'bah without being in ihram. Is her 'Umrah valid, given that she performed a second 'Umrah from al-Tan'im on behalf of her father?
Answer:
If the intention is that she did not intend to enter ihram, that she did not intend to enter ihram, then she has no 'Umrah, because ihram is a pillar of 'Umrah, and it is not established except with it. But if the intention is that she intended to enter ihram but did not avoid the prohibitions?
Because some people think that ihram is the clothing, that it is wearing the special clothes for ihram, and that whoever does not wear them is not in ihram. This is a mistake. These are prohibitions, not the ihram itself; rather, these are only among the prohibitions of ihram. So if he intends it in his heart and recites the talbiyah, his ihram is valid even if he does not wear the clothes of ihram, but he owes a fidyah (ransom payment).
If he commits one of the prohibitions of ihram, it does not invalidate his ihram, except for sexual intercourse. Sexual intercourse is what invalidates the ritual. As for the other prohibitions, such as perfume, cutting the nails, and other prohibitions, and wearing sewn clothing for a man, and wearing the niqab (face veil) for a woman, and wearing gloves for a woman, these are prohibitions that do not invalidate the ihram, but he pays a fidyah (ransom payment) in their place. Either he slaughters a sheep in Makkah and distributes it to the poor, or he fasts for three days, or he feeds six poor people in the Haram (sacred precinct). This is a prohibition that does not invalidate the ihram, and it is compensated by the fidyah. So if this woman intended to enter ihram and recited the talbiyah, but did not avoid the prohibitions of ihram, then she owes the fidyah and her 'Umrah is valid.
Source
قناة «العلامة الدكتور صالح الفوزان»، ما حكم من اعتمر دون إحرام؟ للشيخ صالح الفوزان — youtube.com
The Arabic text is a machine transcription of the audio recording.