The Difference Between the Rule That Means Have the Ruling of Their Ends and the Rule That the End Justifies the Means
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Question:
A question from Algeria. He says: Honorable Shaykh, I hope you will clarify for us the difference between the established rule among the scholars that “means have the ruling of their ends” and the false rule used by the people of innovation and misguidance, “the end justifies the means.”
Answer:
No, no, the end does not justify the means. It does not justify the means. This is a statement with no basis in the Shari'ah. Rather, means have the ruling of their ends. Yes. If a means leads to a prescribed matter, then the means is prescribed. If a means leads to a forbidden matter, then the means is forbidden. This is to block the means to harm. Yes.
A question from Algeria. He says: Honorable Shaykh, I hope you will clarify for us the difference between the established rule among the scholars that “means have the ruling of their ends” and the false rule used by the people of innovation and misguidance, “the end justifies the means.”
Answer:
No, no, the end does not justify the means. It does not justify the means. This is a statement with no basis in the Shari'ah. Rather, means have the ruling of their ends. Yes. If a means leads to a prescribed matter, then the means is prescribed. If a means leads to a forbidden matter, then the means is forbidden. This is to block the means to harm. Yes.
Source
أهمية طلب العلم — alfawzan.live (1:09:14)
The Arabic text is a machine transcription of the audio recording.