The Meaning of La ilaha illa Allah and the Response to Interpreting It as Sovereignty

Question:
Honorable Shaykh, may Allah reward you, what is your opinion of the one who says that the meaning of La ilaha illa Allah is that there is no sovereignty except for Allah?

Answer:
What Allah willed, this takes a small part of the meaning of La ilaha illa Allah and leaves out the original, which is tawhid (the oneness of Allah) and worship. La ilaha illa Allah means there is no deity worthy of worship except Allah, there is no deity worthy of worship except Allah. It negates shirk (associating partners with Allah) and affirms tawhid (the oneness of Allah). Sovereignty is part of the meaning of La ilaha illa Allah. But the original is tawhid (the oneness of Allah); the original in La ilaha illa Allah is tawhid (the oneness of Allah), , but this is a fitnah (trial, discord or temptation). Those who say this statement are either ignorant people who interpret the words of Allah and the words of His Messenger while they have no knowledge; they are only people of general culture or they are called thinkers, but they have no fiqh (Islamic jurisprudence) in the religion of Allah. Not having fiqh (Islamic jurisprudence) in the religion of Allah is a calamity, and it is not permissible for anyone to enter into interpreting the words of Allah and the words of His Messenger while he has no fiqh (Islamic jurisprudence) and knowledge. It is not enough that he is cultured and that he reads in the newspapers and papers and knows and understands the conditions of the world and what people are upon. This is not a scholar; this is a cultured person. So it is not permissible for him to enter into interpreting the words of Allah and the words of His Messenger except scholars, the people of knowledge and the people of fiqh (Islamic jurisprudence), or that this man is malicious; he is a scholar but he is malicious, wanting to divert people from tawhid (the oneness of Allah) and occupy them with issues other than tawhid (the oneness of Allah). So he is either ignorant or malicious. Does he interpret it with this interpretation?
In any case, it is a very incomplete interpretation and is of no benefit. Even if the courts were to rule by the Shari'ah in disputes between people regarding money, honor, and hudud (fixed punishments), while leaving the matter of shirk (associating partners with Allah) and the shrines standing, this would be of no benefit and would add nothing. It would not be considered a Muslim practice until shirk is removed and the idols are demolished. The Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) began by demolishing the idols. He began by demolishing the idols before he ordered the people to pray, fast, pay zakah, and perform Hajj. Do you know that he stayed in Makkah for thirteen years, ordering tawhid (the oneness of Allah) and forbidding shirk? Until the creed was established and the belief was firm, and he found among the Muslims those who would support the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings be upon him) in the matter of jihad, the laws of Islam were revealed to him: prayer, fasting, Hajj, and the rest of the laws of Islam. Therefore, a building does not stand except on a foundation; the foundation must come first, then the building. That is why the testimony that there is no god but Allah and that Muhammad is the Messenger of Allah is the first pillar of Islam. The Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) said: The testimony that there is no god but Allah and that Muhammad is the Messenger of Allah. Some of them even wrote a book stating that Allah created the creation to establish His sovereignty (hakimiyyah) on earth. This contradicts the saying of Allah the Exalted: meaning He went to this verse and said He created them to establish His sovereignty. Glory be to Allah! Allah the Exalted says, "And I did not create the jinn and mankind except to worship Me," and you say to establish His sovereignty. Yes, where did he get this interpretation from? Yes