The Effect of Prohibiting Something for Oneself on Divorce and Expiation
Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The questioner:
He says: This is a code for himself, your brother in Allah, Muhammad. I prohibited myself from doing something, and my intention in prohibiting it was to prevent myself from falling into this thing. I said, "It is haram (forbidden) by Allah that I do such and such," but I did it. Does divorce take place in this case or not? And does the intention play a role in this situation? Please inform us, may Allah reward you with good.
The Shaykh:
You mentioned your intention; this is your purpose: to refrain from this thing. This is only the expiation for an oath, the expiation for an oath. If a person says, "It is haram for me to eat this food," or "It is haram for me to eat with so-and-so," and his intention is to refrain, then if he does it, he owes the expiation for an oath, and he must repent to Allah. It is not permissible for a person to prohibit what Allah has made lawful for him. Allah says to His Prophet:[At-Tahrim 66:1]. It is not permissible for a person to prohibit what Allah has made lawful for him. But if he says, "By Allah, I will not eat this," or "By Allah, I will not eat with so-and-so," and then he speaks to him or eats, he owes the expiation for an oath. Likewise, if he prohibits it, or says, "It is haram for me to eat so-and-so's food," or "It is haram for me to speak to him," he owes the expiation for an oath, and repentance to Allah for that.
Another questioner:
The drink.
The Shaykh:
Give him the reply from Muhammad.
The questioner:
The images are correct.
The Shaykh:
Correct, I do not know what you know about the answer; verify it.
The questioner:
If Allah wills.
The Shaykh:
He asks about it.
The questioner:
The voice is safe for him so that Muhammad knows.
The Shaykh:
Or I give.
The questioner:
Thank you.
The Shaykh:
Okay, he will make a phone. Yes.
Another questioner:
Muhammad.
The Shaykh:
Or safety. Hmm.
He says: This is a code for himself, your brother in Allah, Muhammad. I prohibited myself from doing something, and my intention in prohibiting it was to prevent myself from falling into this thing. I said, "It is haram (forbidden) by Allah that I do such and such," but I did it. Does divorce take place in this case or not? And does the intention play a role in this situation? Please inform us, may Allah reward you with good.
The Shaykh:
You mentioned your intention; this is your purpose: to refrain from this thing. This is only the expiation for an oath, the expiation for an oath. If a person says, "It is haram for me to eat this food," or "It is haram for me to eat with so-and-so," and his intention is to refrain, then if he does it, he owes the expiation for an oath, and he must repent to Allah. It is not permissible for a person to prohibit what Allah has made lawful for him. Allah says to His Prophet:
O Prophet, why do you prohibit [yourself from] what Allah has made lawful for you
يَا أَيُّهَا النَّبِيُّ لِمَ تُحَرِّمُ مَا أَحَلَّ اللَّهُ لَكَAnother questioner:
The drink.
The Shaykh:
Give him the reply from Muhammad.
The questioner:
The images are correct.
The Shaykh:
Correct, I do not know what you know about the answer; verify it.
The questioner:
If Allah wills.
The Shaykh:
He asks about it.
The questioner:
The voice is safe for him so that Muhammad knows.
The Shaykh:
Or I give.
The questioner:
Thank you.
The Shaykh:
Okay, he will make a phone. Yes.
Another questioner:
Muhammad.
The Shaykh:
Or safety. Hmm.
Source
فتاوى الحج 1410 هـ - 12 — archive.org (58:38)
The Arabic text is a machine transcription of the audio recording.