He bought a house from a person and stipulated that the seller rent him a part of it

The Permanent Committee for Scholarly Research and Ifta

Machine translationRead the Arabic original

The second question of Fatwa No. ( 19420 )
Q2: A merchant bought a house from a person and stipulated that the seller rent him a part of the house for a specific amount, and the seller stipulated to the buyer that he not sell this house except to the original owner. Is such a transaction permissible?

A2: This sale is not permissible; because it falls under two sales in one sale, which is prohibited in the hadith.

Source www.alifta.gov.sa

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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