A man who does not pray except in Ramadan and used to have intercourse with his wife in Ramadan, then repented: does he owe an expiation?

The questioner : The man says: When Ramadan comes, he fasts and prays, and when Ramadan passes, he abandons the prayer. He continued in this state for years, then he repented. He used to have intercourse with his wife during Ramadan. When he repented, he committed to the obligatory acts and the recommended practices, and he became upright. Is it obligatory for him to make up the prayers?

The Shaykh : Yes, indeed. But in a case like this, my brothers, should we not apply the view regarding the overlap of expiations? I ask you. The black. The black. The image says that the man used to fast in Ramadan and pray only in Ramadan, and have intercourse every day like this?

The questioner : Some days.

The Shaykh : Or some days, then Allah guided him and he repented. It is well known that we do not obligate him to make up the prayers because he used to abandon them intentionally. It is also well known that he did not abandon the prayer absolutely.
It is also well known that he invalidated his fast with intercourse. So, do we adopt the second view mentioned by the author (may Allah have mercy on him) regarding the overlap of the expiations for the days, and that one expiation suffices for him, based on the fact that if we obligated him to expiate for every day, he might apostatize and say, "If I am upright, this matter is imposed on me. This is an imposition." And this is a possibility. Is it good in terms of education to adopt the second view, which has a perspective of consideration, as we mentioned previously in the last lesson?
If he had asked me for a ruling and I knew that the man had repented with a sincere repentance, I would say one expiation is sufficient for you, but do not inform the people of that. Yes, indeed.