Does the ablution become invalid by shaving the head after wiping?

Question : Then we ask: What do you say about a man who wiped over his head, and he has a lot of hair on it, reaching the inner part of his head, and it is not wet? All the hair is full, the head is full of hair. He wiped over his head, and then after he completed his ablution, he shaved his head. Does the ablution become invalid or not? It does not become invalid. What is the difference?

Answer : There is no difference in reality. They say there is a difference, but you are fools who do not know. What is the difference? They say: Because wiping on the head is original, and wiping on the leather socks is a branch. How do you compare the branch with the original? And this is confusing. What do we say to him? We say: Since we agreed that the wiping is attached to something extra, whether it is original or a branch, this does not affect the ruling. The important thing is that the thing to which the purity is attached, which is the hair on the head and the leather socks on the foot, has disappeared and gone from the person, so there is no difference. But if a man compared it to the case of someone whose hand was cut off after his ablution, is the analogy valid or not? No, the analogy is not valid, because the place of the obligation has disappeared completely.