What is the intended meaning of the hadith: (No one conveys my message except a man from my household), and does it indicate the obligation of taking hadiths from the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) from
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The questioner : It is mentioned in the book *Fiqh al-Sunnah* in the section on the biography, the saying of the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) Musannaf Ibn Abi Shaybah 29:500 and you have graded it as good. So what is the inference from this hadith? Does it indicate the obligation of taking hadiths from the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) only through the people of the household, or what?
The Shaykh : The questioner has gone far in his understanding of this hadith, because if the hadith were correct in meaning according to what he and his people have claimed, then the consensus of the Muslim community on receiving the Sunnah from the great Companions, such as the Rightly Guided Caliphs and the rest of the Ten Promised Paradise, and others, would have been in manifest error. Therefore, a student of knowledge, if he wants to understand a certain hadith, should understand it in light of what the Muslims have practiced. So we always say, and this is an example that must be added to the many examples we give when we say that the Islamic call today must be taken from the Book and the Sunnah and the practice of the righteous predecessors. The phrase "practice of the righteous predecessors" is very necessary, because that serves as a restriction and clarification for some texts that may be hidden from some people. This is the example before you:Musannaf Ibn Abi Shaybah 29:500 This does not convey its meaning as an absolute statement, whereas its meaning is very narrow, and it is: "No one conveys my debts and the rights that people have upon me." This is the meaning of the hadith. And the chains of this hadith indicate this, and it is as the questioner transmitted, and I have graded it as good, because I collected its chains and the hadith was strengthened by them. In them, it is explicitly stated that the Messenger (peace and blessings be upon him) said that on the occasion of paying off his debts after his death, when he had rights owed to him. Therefore, relying on this text in its generality, while the Muslims have practiced the opposite, is absolutely not permissible. Especially since this hadith is restricted by the occasion on which it was mentioned from the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him and his family). Does it mean to call to prayer?
No one will convey my message except a man from my household
لا يؤدي عني إلا رجل من أهل بيتيThe Shaykh : The questioner has gone far in his understanding of this hadith, because if the hadith were correct in meaning according to what he and his people have claimed, then the consensus of the Muslim community on receiving the Sunnah from the great Companions, such as the Rightly Guided Caliphs and the rest of the Ten Promised Paradise, and others, would have been in manifest error. Therefore, a student of knowledge, if he wants to understand a certain hadith, should understand it in light of what the Muslims have practiced. So we always say, and this is an example that must be added to the many examples we give when we say that the Islamic call today must be taken from the Book and the Sunnah and the practice of the righteous predecessors. The phrase "practice of the righteous predecessors" is very necessary, because that serves as a restriction and clarification for some texts that may be hidden from some people. This is the example before you: