Is it permissible for one who is not in a state of ritual purity to touch the Qur'an, with evidence, and what is meant by being in a state of ritual purity?

The Shaykh : However, if someone asks whether it is permissible for one who is not in a state of ritual purity—meaning one who is in a state of minor ritual impurity or major ritual impurity—to touch the Qur'an, the answer is that it is not permissible. But this ruling is not derived from this verse; rather, it is derived from the hadith of 'Amr ibn Hazm, which the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) wrote for him: This hadith, although it is a report missing the Companion link, and we know that such reports fall under the categories of weak hadith, is considered authentic if it has corroborating narrations or if the Muslim community has accepted it. This hadith has been accepted by the Muslim community and acted upon in matters of blood money, zakah, and other matters mentioned in it, so this hadith is accepted despite being a report missing the Companion link. This is a benefit that a student of hadith should take note of: one should not look only at the chain of narration. For if one looks only at the chain and its apparent structure, one might validate a denounced narration. We know that a condition for an authentic hadith is that its chain be connected, free from defects, and not anomalous. It must be free from defects and not anomalous, otherwise it is weak, even if the narrators in the chain are trustworthy and the chain is connected. Here, the hadith is a report missing the Companion link, but because the Muslim community accepted it, it became authentic. So, the Prophet's (peace and blessings be upon him) statement: Where does "pure" come from? Pure from ritual impurity, meaning pure from ritual impurity. Some people say "pure from shirk (associating partners with Allah)." They say this because Allah the Exalted says: And the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) said: So, the meaning of "pure" here is the believer, meaning only a believer may touch the Qur'an, whether he is in a state of ritual purity from ritual impurity or not. But when we examine this hadith closely, it becomes clear that this interpretation of the hadith is incorrect. For "pure" is the believer who has purified himself from ritual impurity, as evidenced by the statement of the Exalted when He mentioned the verse of ablution, the full ritual bath, and dry ablution with clean earth: This indicates that before we perform ablution or the full ritual bath, we are not in a state of ritual purity. So, "pure" means one who has performed ablution and the full ritual bath from major ritual impurity. We do not know that the Lawgiver uses the word "pure" to refer to the believer or the Muslim; rather, He describes the believer with the attribute of faith: And He did not say "the pure men and the pure women." So, the expression "pure" is not used in the Book of Allah or the Sunnah of His Messenger (peace and blessings be upon him) to refer to the believer, because the attribute of faith is a great attribute, more eloquent than the attribute of purity. Purity is an attribute of the believer, but faith is the foundation. Therefore, using this verse as evidence that only one in a state of ritual purity may touch the Qur'an, based on the assumption that the pronoun in "does not touch it" refers to the Qur'an and that the intended meaning of "the purified ones" is "those who have purified themselves," is weak evidence. And we are in no need of this evidence, for what? For the hadith: .