What do you say about the saying of the Messenger (peace and blessings be upon him): (The Qur'an is not to be touched except by one who is in a state of purity)?
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The questioner : The questioner:The questioner : He says: What do you say about the saying of the Messenger (peace and blessings be upon him): Muwatta Malik 15:1?
The Shaykh: This hadith, we had traced it in detail — as I recall — in *Silsilat al-Ahadith al-Sahihah*, and we clarified that it is a valid hadith based on the totality of its chains. But is there an indication in it that it means it is forbidden for a Muslim to touch the Qur'an when he is not in a state of ritual purity? Knowing that a Muslim is pure, even if he is in a state of major ritual impurity; because it is authentically reported from the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him and his family) that he said:, in a hadith narrated by al-Bukhari in his *Sahih*. The Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him and his family) came to a group of the Companions, and among them was Abu Hurayrah — and in another narration: Hudhayfah — so Abu Hurayrah slipped out of the gathering, then he came back with his head dripping with water. So the Messenger (peace be upon him) asked him about the reason for his slipping out and withdrawing. He said: "O Messenger of Allah, I was in a state of major ritual impurity." As if he was saying: I thought it inappropriate to sit with you — O Messenger of Allah — or to shake hands with you while I was in a state of major ritual impurity. So he (peace be upon him) said: Sunan an-Nasa'i 269Sahih (Darussalam), meaning it was not necessary for you to be so cautious; because a Muslim, even if he is in a state of major ritual impurity, is pure and does not become ritually impure.
The Shaykh: And if that is the case — and it is the case — then at that point, his saying (peace be upon him):Muwatta Malik 15:1, we interpret it with the aforementioned hadith of Ibn 'Umar: Sahih Muslim 1869b, so Muwatta Malik 15:1 means: except a believer, whether he is afterwards in a state of major or minor ritual impurity. And likewise, it should be interpreted — in our view — that this hadith means there is no valid, explicit text regarding the impermissibility of touching the Qur'an by one who is in a state of major or minor ritual impurity.
This is my answer to this last one.
The questioner : ... ؟
The Shaykh : How?
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh: This was the answer if you were afraid.
Another questioner: Should we not say that the explicit wording contradicts the implied meaning?
The Shaykh : And where?
Another questioner: The explicit wording of the Prophet's (peace and blessings be upon him) saying:Muwatta Malik 15:1, does it not contradict: Sahih Muslim 1869b?
The Shaykh: Explain to me — may Allah bless you — the aspect of contradiction between the explicit wording and the implied meaning? First:Muwatta Malik 15:1 means except a disbeliever; is that not so? Okay, the Qur'an is not to be touched except by a believer, meaning: the disbeliever does not touch it. What do you consider this to be?
Another questioner: An explicit general text.
The Shaykh: An explicit general text. Good, and the hadith of Ibn 'Umar: is a specific text. Okay, so what is your question? The discussion is proceeding up to this point.
Another questioner: ... We build the general upon the specific.
The Shaykh: That is so, and that is what we did.
Yes.
no-one should touch the Qur'an unless he was pure
لا يمسُّ القرآن إلا طاهرThe Shaykh: This hadith, we had traced it in detail — as I recall — in *Silsilat al-Ahadith al-Sahihah*, and we clarified that it is a valid hadith based on the totality of its chains. But is there an indication in it that it means it is forbidden for a Muslim to touch the Qur'an when he is not in a state of ritual purity? Knowing that a Muslim is pure, even if he is in a state of major ritual impurity; because it is authentically reported from the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him and his family) that he said:
The believer does not become impure
المؤمن لا ينجسSubhan Allah! The believer is not made impure (Najis).
سبحان الله ، إن المؤمن لا ينجسThe Shaykh: And if that is the case — and it is the case — then at that point, his saying (peace be upon him):
no-one should touch the Qur'an unless he was pure
لا يمس القرآن إلا طاهرused to forbid that one should travel to the land of the enemy taking the Qur'an (with him) lest it should fall into the hands of the enemy
لا تسافروا بالمصحف إلى أرض العدو مخافة أن يناله العدوno-one should touch the Qur'an unless he was pure
لا يمس القرآن إلا طاهرThis is my answer to this last one.
The questioner : ... ؟
The Shaykh : How?
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh: This was the answer if you were afraid.
Another questioner: Should we not say that the explicit wording contradicts the implied meaning?
The Shaykh : And where?
Another questioner: The explicit wording of the Prophet's (peace and blessings be upon him) saying:
no-one should touch the Qur'an unless he was pure
لا يمس القرآن إلا طاهرlest it should fall into the hands of the enemy
مخافة أن يناله العدوThe Shaykh: Explain to me — may Allah bless you — the aspect of contradiction between the explicit wording and the implied meaning? First:
no-one should touch the Qur'an unless he was pure
لا يمس القرآن إلا طاهرAnother questioner: An explicit general text.
The Shaykh: An explicit general text. Good, and the hadith of Ibn 'Umar:
One does not travel.
لا يُسافرAnother questioner: ... We build the general upon the specific.
The Shaykh: That is so, and that is what we did.
Yes.
Source
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