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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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If the fiancé has intercourse with his fiancée and then divorces her, does she receive the full bridal gift and is she required to observe the waiting period?

Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The questioner : Shaykh, and if he divorces her, does he have to pay her the woman...?

The Shaykh : No. If he divorces her after having intercourse with her, she is entitled to the full bridal gift, and she is required to observe the waiting period. Yes.
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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